I have a transverse loop colostomy (due to a large abscess, ruptures, and a very persistent pseudoobstruction) since the end of April now, and I have had a couple of bowel movements since then from my rectum. One of them I know was not residual because it contained some undigested food of a sort that I did not eat before having this colostomy. I told my colorectal surgeon, he asked if it was frequent, and I told him it was not, along with what I mentioned about the undigested food, and he just made a note, smiled, and said "Welp, better call Ripley's." I really was not sure what to make of that. On one hand, I could see he was not concerned, but it didn't explain anything to me, and as I was a bit taken aback and he had more questions on his list, I didn't pursue it. Now I just have occasional blood (had that before in huge amounts, without any hemorrhoids). Now I do have hemorrhoids aplenty (I'm 8 and a half months pregnant ATM), and a lot of very thin, greenish-yellow foul-smelling mucus (so gross, I know) that disappeared for a while and came back. The doctor said that is from abscess draining (3 months seems to me like a long time for an abscess to drain, especially after they have done a lavage, and it stopped and started again...confused). But I cannot see how it can be normal or even possible for rectal BMs to happen unless a fistula forms, connecting the proximal to the distal section of the bowel...which I take would not be good at all given that there are reasons the distal section is being rested/not used.